30. If \( f(x) = 1 + \ln x \), then \( (f^{-1})'(2) \) is:






Answer is: option4

\( e \)

Solution:

Step 1: Recall the inverse function derivative rule

If \( g \) is the inverse of \( f \), then the derivative of the inverse function at any point is given by the formula:

\[ (f^{-1})'(y) = \frac{1}{f'(f^{-1}(y))} \]

Step 2: Solve for \( f^{-1}(2) \)

We need to find \( x \) such that \( f(x) = 2 \). The equation \( f(x) = 1 + \ln x \) gives us:

\[ 1 + \ln x = 2 \implies \ln x = 1 \]

Solving this for \( x \) gives:

\[ x = e \]

Thus, \( f^{-1}(2) = e \).

Step 3: Find \( f'(x) \)

The derivative of \( f(x) = 1 + \ln x \) is:

\[ f'(x) = \frac{1}{x} \]

Step 4: Evaluate \( f'(e) \)

Substitute \( x = e \) into \( f'(x) \):

\[ f'(e) = \frac{1}{e} \]

Step 5: Apply the inverse function derivative formula

Now, apply the inverse function derivative formula:

\[ (f^{-1})'(2) = \frac{1}{f'(e)} = \frac{1}{\frac{1}{e}} = e \]

Final Answer:

The value of \( (f^{-1})'(2) \) is \( e \), so the correct answer is (D).

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